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We sold our IP last year, but CGT calulations are slightly complicated by the fact that it was our PPOR for a time. We purchased it in 04 as a PPOR, rented it from 05 onwards, but only acquired a new PPOR in 06.
The question is, what is an acceptable way to determine its 06 value for CGT cost base purposes? Am I required to get a professional valuation? Can I use previous sales data (there happened to be a sale of an equivalent property at around this time), or can I use 'median % change' data from RPData etc?
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