Hi all,
Another question I could use some help with-I have a friend who had never owned a property till he got married but the wife had, so when they bought the property he guessed (correctly?) he wouldnt be elligable because of her prior ownership. They have since split up and he now wants to buy his own property-is there anyway he can still get the grant as he have never owned a property albeit the short period during which he had one with his wife?
It would be best to check with the state revenue department of the state he lives in. Just do a google search for state revenue or first home owners grant. On there web page they have quite a few scenarios or you can ring them directly their no is on the web site
Wayne
Mortgage Adviser
Email [email protected]
http://www.alphamortgagesolutions.com.au
Refinace, Loan Consolidation, Owner Occupied or Investment Finance. Free Service we come to you!I would think he would be eligible as he has never owned property. Was he ever on title?
The fact that a past spouse had owned property shouldn’t matter.
Terryw
Discover Home Loans
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Email MeLawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au
Would not think so.
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Hi. If he owned the property or was a joint owner (ie had a share or interest in the property, by being on the title) it is a no no. It is a first home owner grant, which he would then not be. [strum]
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