Hi
A quick issue with teh FHOG:
What happens if there is a couple buying a house when one of them has previously bought a property? Are they still eligible for the FHOG? Or, does the house have to go into the name of the person who hasn’t previously bought a property?
Greg
Hi Greg,
If the partner has previously purchased an owner occupied property i.e., not an investment property, then the partner is not entitled to receive the FHOG.Furthermore in the case of the above scenario, if the partner’s name does appears on the title along with your name, you will also loose your eligibility for the FHOG,
You may also have issues with finance if the partner’s name is to be included as a co borrower on the loan application but not appear on the title. Cheers.Regards
Steven
Mortgage BrokerMobile Mortgage Market
Ph: 04024833216
[email protected]So can someone who has only owned an investment property still be eligible for FHOG ?
Yes, that is correct.
Regards
Steven
Mortgage BrokerMobile Mortgage Market
Ph: 0402483216
[email protected]
http://www.mobilemortgagemarket.com.au…providing the investment property in question was not purchased prior to June 2000 and the investor has NEVER lived in it.
Prior to 1st July 2000
http://www.firsthome.gov.au/Regards
Steven
Mortgage BrokerMobile Mortgage Market
Ph: 0402 483 216
[email protected]
http://www.mobilemortgagemarket.com.auPLEASE note comments made should not be taken as specific taxation, financial, legal or investment advice.
[blush2]
Thanks everyone!
Where exactly does it say that you can own an investment property?
Originally posted by Mobile Mortgage:Prior to 1st July 2000
http://www.firsthome.gov.au/Regards
Steven
Mortgage BrokerMobile Mortgage Market
Ph: 0402 483 216
[email protected]
http://www.mobilemortgagemarket.com.auPLEASE note comments made should not be taken as specific taxation, financial, legal or investment advice.
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