All Topics / Legal & Accounting / Capital Gains Tax on Wraps?

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  • Profile photo of RoofarmerRoofarmer
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    @roofarmer
    Join Date: 2003
    Post Count: 63

    Hi,

    I recently went to see my accountant and was told that I may be liable for capital gains tax (on the difference between what I paid and end purcahsor price) up-front for all the wrap deals I have completed thus far.

    I was on the understanding that wraps were handled under the “emerging profits” rule and thus the cash flow itself was taxed and thus capital gains tax is only due upon the wrap deal ending i.e. re-finance by end purchasor.

    Am I mistaken?

    Cheers

    “Most people operate under a false ceiling which is 3 feet high” Stuart G Goldsmith

    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
    Join Date: 2001
    Post Count: 16,213

    Hi Roofarmer

    Yes, things have changed. There has been some tax determinations produced early this year (do a search on this site for more details). Basically the ATO is saying the sale takes place on the date of the contract, and therefore CGT should be paid for that financial year.

    Maybe lease otpions are a way around this.

    Terryw
    Discover Home Loans
    North Sydney
    [email protected]

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
    http://www.Structuring.com.au
    Email Me

    Lawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au

    Profile photo of RoofarmerRoofarmer
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    @roofarmer
    Join Date: 2003
    Post Count: 63

    Hi,

    If you are running the wraps through a trust structure is the capital gains tax rate 30% or do you assume that you have distributed that profit to a beneficiary and the tax rate is their tax rate?

    Cheers

    “Most people operate under a false ceiling which is 3 feet high” Stuart G Goldsmith

    Profile photo of Richard TaylorRichard Taylor
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    @qlds007
    Join Date: 2003
    Post Count: 12,024

    Roofarmer

    Terry as usual is correct there has been a few changes to the way Installment Contracts are taxed.

    Have a look at the following link and this might help. All in all its another win for wrappers in the way income is assessed.

    http://law.ato.gov.au/atolaw/view.htm?dbwidetocone=05%3AATO%20Interpretative%20Decisions%3ABy%20Year%3A2004%3A1-99%3A%230027%23ATO%20ID%202004%2F27%20-%20Derivation%20of%20income%26c%20residential%20properties%20instalment%20sales%20contracts%20-%20carrying%20on%20a%20business%26s%3B

    Cheers Richard
    richard at fhog.com.au
    http://www.fhog.com.au

    There is no such thing as a problem.
    Just a solution waiting to be found

    Richard Taylor | Australia's leading private lender

    Profile photo of skippygirlskippygirl
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    Richard,
    Does this mean the interest component of the payment stream is regarded as income each year, and then when the contract is paid out and title transfer takes place, then any CGT liability has to be paid for that tax year?

    If anyone could show an example using numbers over say 3 years that would be great.

    Cheers
    skippygirl

    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    Roofarmer

    I beleive that you can distribute the gains to any beneficiary and the tax payable would depend on their income. I assume it would be 30% only if distributed to a company.

    Terryw
    Discover Home Loans
    North Sydney
    [email protected]

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
    http://www.Structuring.com.au
    Email Me

    Lawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au

    Profile photo of Richard TaylorRichard Taylor
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    @qlds007
    Join Date: 2003
    Post Count: 12,024

    Hi Skippygirl

    You have it in one.

    Told you there was a big change in interpretation didn’t i.

    Cheers Richard
    richard at fhog.com.au
    http://www.fhog.com.au

    There is no such thing as a problem.
    Just a solution waiting to be found

    Richard Taylor | Australia's leading private lender

    Profile photo of JuliaJulia
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    @julia
    Join Date: 2004
    Post Count: 217

    Roofarmer,
    Both lots of advice are wrong. CGT does not apply to Wraps it is normal income tax from sale of trading stock but you are not taxed on the income until settlement.

    Here are the examples for Skippygirl and rulings for the doubters.

    If the Vendor Finance arrangement has the following features the income stream received, once the wrap arrangement has begun, is considered to be principle and interest by the ATO. The income stream received before the wrap arrangement is entered into is considered rent. Reference ID2003/968.
    Typical Features of a Wrap (Vendor Finance Arrangement)
    1) The purchaser pays a deposit at the time of entering into the arrangement.
    2) The settlement (change of the title deed to the purchaser) does not take place for several years after the arrangement is entered into.
    3) The purchaser has the right to occupy the property prior to settlement
    4) The purchaser pays a weekly amount (regardless of the name it is given in the arrangement) for the right to occupy the property
    5) As part of the arrangement the purchaser pays the rates, taxes and insurances on the property.
    6) The balance of the purchase price to be paid on settlement of the arrangement is reduced by the weekly instalments.
    7) If the purchaser fails to complete the arrangement the deposit and weekly instalments are forfeited.

    Now what about the profit on the sale of the property? Is that normal income or capital gain and when is it taxable? Assuming an agreement similar to that described above the answer to this question revolves around whether the vendor is in the business of selling houses or an investor just realising an investment. The key issues in differentiating here, according to ID2004/25, 26 & 27 are:
    1) The Vendor did not use the property for any other purpose than to enter into the wrap. A straight rental of a property before entering into a wrap arrangement would avoid this point.
    2) The property was sold at a profit
    3) The wrap arrangement was entered into within 6 months of the vendor purchasing the property.
    4) The Vendor is in the business of purchasing properties to resell. It would be difficult for the ATO to argue this case if the Vendor only bought and sold one property.

    If you are caught by all of the above then CGT cannot apply to the sale of the property as the profit on the sale is revenue in nature. If a transaction is caught as income, CGT does not apply or in other words CGT is the last option if income tax doesn’t catch it. But even if you weren’t caught by the above and CGT applied there would be no discount if the property was held for under 12 months. If you did hold the property for less than 12 months before entering into the wrap it is better to argue that you are in business and caught by the above because the profit on sale would be revenue in nature and as a result not assessable until settlement which could be 25 years away (ID2004/27). If you hold the property for less than 12 months but it is subject to CGT you don’t qualify for the discount but would be assessable on the profit when entering into the wrap.
    Section 104-15(1) of ITAA 1997 states that a CGT event happens when the owner of a property enters into an arrangement with another party to allow them to live in the property and title may transfer at the end of the arrangement. Section 104-10(3) states that the time the CGT event happens is the time of entering into a contract for the disposal of the asset, not when settlement (title passes) takes place.
    For example this means that the vendor who enters into a wrap on a property that has been previously used as a rental and held for more than 6 months will be subject to CGT on the property in the financial year the wrap agreement is entered into. Accordingly, if at this stage the property has not been held for 12 months no CGT discount will be available even if they eventually end up holding the property for 25 years under the arrangement.

    Disclaimer: Please note this information is general in nature and constantly changing so please don’t act on it without consulting your Accountant.

    [email protected]

    Profile photo of skippygirlskippygirl
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    @skippygirl
    Join Date: 2003
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    Thank you Julie, I appreciate the info. I’ve read those various ATO statements several times over other threads and I guess I’m pretty thick…can anyone use a numbers example as I am still working this out.

    If I am “caught by all the criteria” it sounds like there is no CGT so the profit component of every wrap payment received over time is simply taxed at the going rate for the entity after deducting expenses etc – is that right?

    So, am I declaring, say, the interest and profit component of the wrappees payment to me (use $200 out of a total payment to me of $1200 for 1 month) as income?

    Then, am I deducting my interest expense (use $80 for that month) and all my other expenses (say $50) and the balance ($70) is what I pay tax on in that year?

    Then, let’s say in year 3 the person cashes me out and pays out the balance owing on the property of $80K, (I bought it for $67K and they bought it from me for $86K) is that simply return of capital and not income? Is there any tax on the $80K payment?

    Thanks to all the brains trusts in advance.

    Cheers
    Skippygirl

    Profile photo of JuliaJulia
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    @julia
    Join Date: 2004
    Post Count: 217

    Skippygirl,
    “If the Vendor Finance arrangement has the following features the income stream received, once the wrap arrangement has begun, is considered to be principle and interest by the ATO”

    You only declare the interest you receive as income and deduct against this income the interest you pay the bank. The principle portion of the repayment sits in your balance sheet as a deposit and is not assessable.

    You are not thick I have just been doing this for too long to notice the obvious questions.

    [email protected]

    Profile photo of kpkp
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    @kp
    Join Date: 2004
    Post Count: 509

    Hello Julia,
    I too must be thick..
    Can you clarify a couple of points pls:

    You mentioned that income stream prior to the wrap contract is rent but post the contract is P&I repayment. if you’re on selling the property to a wrapee surely they would occupy once the contract was in place and hence the repayment will be P&i. When will it be rent ?

    You mentioned at settlement the purchaser pays the balance owing minus the monthly repayments made to date.
    Can you confirm that it is only the principal portion of the monthly repayment that the settlement amount is reduced by ?( not the total repayment which includes interest)
    Finally, is CGT liability paid at this point (at settlement)?
    THanks, KP

    Profile photo of JuliaJulia
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    @julia
    Join Date: 2004
    Post Count: 217

    KP,
    The principle portion of the amount received is part of the deposit so not accessable as such though the sale itself is accessable.
    The only time payments from the wrappee are rent is if they happened to be a normal tennant before you entered into the wrap agreement. Or you rented it to another tenant first. If either of these has happened you have a window of opportunity to get away from trading stock and into CGT though this is only an advantage if you hold the property for more than 12 months before you enter into the agreement to sell. The only difference between trading stock and capital gain being the 50% CGT discount available for properties held for more than 12 months. But if you do qualify for CGT you must pay the tax when you agree to sell rather than settlement which could be 25 years later.

    [email protected]

    Profile photo of kpkp
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    @kp
    Join Date: 2004
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    Got it…
    Thanks Julia

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