Forum Replies Created
Thanks minds-eye and donkey1. I'll run it all by my accountant next week to be absolutely sure, but looks promising
Thanks Terryw. So to the best of your knowledge, does the same high level principle hold true under newer tax law? (ie. repairs relating to income producing property that became necessary as a result of income production (eg. tenancy) can be claimed if undertaken in the same financial year, immediately after the property ceases to become income producing)?
Thanks Terryw, The items for repair are fairly clearly repairs and maintenance, not capital works or improvements. Most of the items have been documented well (including photos) in inspection reports from the PM over the last year or more, so proving that they happed during income production shouldn't be too hard. I guess I just wondered whether anyone knew if this would raise any red flags.
Someone put me on to this ruling: http://law.ato.gov.au/atolaw/view.htm?docid=ITR/IT180/NAT/ATO/00001 – which indicates that I could even do the repairs immediately after the property ceases to be income producing, so long as it's in the same financial year as income production.
Although I'm confident I'd come up clean in an audit, I just didn't want to be triggering one, or causing any unnecessary angst during one with this approach.
Hi JacM and ChristianB
Thank you both for your advice.
I ended up going with Southwick Goodyear, a local company in SA that provides "Valuation & Property Services".
They have quoted me $330 (inc GST) for the service, which seems quite reasonable.
Thanks again for your advice
Peter
Hi Terry
Excellent advice. I'll do some more research tomorrow, and weigh it all up.
It certainly seems like an easier way to go.
Thanks for your time and efforts
Peters
Hi Terry
Excellent advice. I'll do some more research tomorrow, and weigh it all up.
It certainly seems like an easier way to go.
Thanks for your time and efforts
Peters
Thanks Richard!
Hi Richard
Thanks for your advice. Our present lender indicated they could do a stopped term deposit as a security, but I'd be happy to consider other options, such as just doing it at the time of the settlement of the new PPOR.
I'm mildly confused about the scenario you have described above:
If the original property was purchase for $100K and both of you had 50K share and the property is now valued at $200K then you could purchase the original share and a further 50K so in effect would have a new loan of $150K.
The current scenario is as follows:
– Purchase Price: $310,000
– Purchase Date: 5/09/2007
– Initial Loan/Principal: $248,000 DR
– Estimated Present Value: $340,000
– Present Principal: $216,060.34 DR
– Current Offset: $216,060.34 CRIf I'm reading what you've said above correctly, I could say that both my wife and I had a 155,000 share in the house at the time of purchase. However, over the course of time, each of our shares in the property has gone up to 170,000. Therefore I could get a loan for 155,000 (my original share) + 170,000 (her present share value), to a total of $325,000. Is that what you mean? or am I way off track?
Thanks again
Peter
Thanks Terryw
I will have a look around. I had a look last night, and I found something about getting a stamp duty exemption if the marriage had "failed", but nothing to do with transferring between spouses in "happier times". If I have no joy, I'll ask my conveyancer, one would hope they know these sorts of things.
Appreciate your advice.
Peter
Hi All, thanks for your comments.
zac_moose – Pulling the money out of the offset and putting it on the new PPOR is fine, and that's not the problem here. The problem is more about the 120k odd of equity then still left in the current PPOR (soon to be IP). It seems a shame to have it sitting there saving me interest where I will be able to claim interest as a tax deduction (once it becomes IP), and at the same time not have it working towards lowering the interest on my new PPOR mortgage. – It's my own still fault. I thought I was being clever when setting it all up, but really I should have worn the pain of a few years of LMI for the long term gain of additional negative gearing.
Does anyone know what the deal is for transferring a title from a husband and wife to just the husband or just the wife? Assuming no marriage break down, I assume you're up for all the same government fees/duties? (ie. stamp duty & transfer of registration etc). We live in SA, not sure if that makes any difference.
Hi Richard
Thanks for your prompt reply. I'd contemplated the trust concept, but wasn't sure if that would fly, and also wasn't sure if it made long term financial sense. There seem to be a few pros and cons.
The suggestion of my wife transferring her interest to me, or visa versa, is a good one, that I had not fully contemplated.
I'll have a hunt around the net, but if you know off hand, do you know what sort of costs this would incur? ie. would we then be up for Stamp Duty or "Transfer of Registration" fees etc? Obviously the bank would like to slug us for rearranging the loan, but from a government perspective do you know if these things apply? (the house is in SA if that makes any difference)
Thanks once again for your prompt and professional advice.
Kind Regards
Peter