Forum Replies Created
you can rent a PPOR out for up to 6 years before it is considered a IP?
and i’m pretty sure you don’t have to live in it when you first buy it to be a PPOR. as in it can be rented out at the start.
thoughts terry?
well the way i see it, my mum has 5 negatively geared properties (capital growth properties)
which she bought all in her own name. but for my own circumstances seems silly because after the first 10 years they will hopefully be neutral and then after 10 + years they will be cash flow so you will have to pay income tax rather then company tax. that was my thinking behind it.
I’m looking to purchase neutral / cash flow from day one properties.
why do you ask?
Cheers, Tom
if you friend is getting the loan and is on the title of the property and the first 12 month he is renting it out to you to maximise the negative gearing strategy. i would have thought that at some point he would actually need to live their 6-12 months to legally prove that it is a PPOR and not a IP for capital gains exemption.
ok good to know thanks
Also Richard, I am wanting to purchase my first IP in a company / trust structure. i’m based in victoria if that makes any difference
Thanks Terry, insurance as in landlord insurance?
how would i get a 100% lend? what is a TD collateral?
Hi Terry,
I think my wording was a bit wrong when i said “buy” but yea thats what i thought. so he would have to show that he could service both mortgages.
Cheers, Tom
I’m a bit confused and just wanted to clarify a couple of things
1. the seller does not live in the property.
2. there is a tenancy agreement in place ($400 a week)
all i was saying is that if the tenants living there are renting out the granny flat for cash.
could you guys see any legal problems?
like i said i would have thought that if the tenants on the lease leave and their “cash tenants in granny flat” stay and do not vacate the property. i could with hold the bond (from the tenants on the lease)? and this would be the tenants responsibility to vacate them?
Hi Terry,
I’m trying to buy a property cheaper then the traditional way (if possible). thus being i would save on stamp duty. wouldn’t have to get a loan and so on.
i feel that if i had a POA and the bank giving him finance for property (B) when they see that he’s still on the title and mortgage of property (A), he wont be able to get finance, as the bank will see it as a liability.
even know i would have the rights / control over the property and he wouldn’t have anything to do with it anymore. on paper the bank would still want to see that he could service both mortgages?
and would their be a problem doing it this way for a long term investment?
Thanks guys, much appreciated!
Hi Jamie,
Thanks for the reply, I’m aware of a protected tenant. but being that their would be a tenancy agreement in place for the dwelling and the granny flat being on the same title. I’m just asking what type of problems you could have? with this type of situation?
worst case i see is that the tenants (who live in the property) move out and then the people live in the granny flat stay in which case that would be worst case scenario. but i would think you could then withhold the bond being that it was the tenants (who live in the property) responsibility to properly vacate the property?
for an investor wanting to put up the 2.5m what does it mean to have the IP coded / non coded? like pros and cons?
Thanks guys very helpful!
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Hi Hamish,
I want to invest in Victoria because I live in Victoria and i want to make profit and experience from investing in property…
Also what other issues need to be addressed following a loan approval to assist with the loan settlement?