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  • Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    Don't assume finance will be ok as it depends on more than equity. At least approach a broker beforehand. You wouldn't want to waste all your time and energy and costs of checks only to find out there is no chance.

    Then get a copy of the contract. See if there is anythin unusual in it. You could start some verbal negotiations and then see a solicitor before making a formal offer. Get your friend to check it out and then use a building inspector too.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    That would fall into the taxable income year of 2010-2011. Tax returns were due to be lodged by around Oct last year, but I think this is extended to Feb or march this year if you are using a tax agent to lodge. Once the tax return is lodged then the ATO processes it and sends you a letter of assessment and then you will have x days to pay. maybe 21. At this point you can ring them up and ask for an extension to pay and they will let you pay it off in installments over a few months.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
    http://www.Structuring.com.au
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    Lawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au

    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    natashawicks wrote:
    Terryw: do you need to live in it for a year to get that 6 years CGT free?

    No. The property just has to be your main residence and then you move out. The rule relates to being absent from your main residence.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    What about doing both?

    Buy PPOR, move in. move out and rent it while you rent elsewhere with flatmates.

    You can have the property CGT free for up to 6 years and continue to claim all the usual tax deductions.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    I still don't see how it differs. Remember this scenario is based on an offset account attached to an investment property.

    Say the IP has a taxable loss of $5,200.

    If he has $50k in the offset then this will save $3,200 pa in interest. So the tax situation for this property will become $2,000 loss

    This effectively means his income overall has increased by $3,200. This in turn means tax will increase by his marginal rate x $3,200.

    If he had put the $3,200 in the savings account at the same interest rate his loss on the IP would be the same, but his overal income would be increased by $3,200. So he will end up paying $3,200 x marginal tax rate in extra tax.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Lawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au

    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    HI dachopper

    I am not sure I completely understand you post. Assuming interest rate on offset and on savings are exactly the same, I still cannot see how it would differ if interest is calculated daily and added monthly to the savings account/off the loan interest.

    I was failing to take into account taxation on savings, but this would generally only be paid at the end of the financial year if you give the bank your TFN.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    Its just a commercial decision. Bank would probably sell at market value and make a claim for any shortfall on LMI. LMI will lose out as they couldn't pursue the vendor or previous owner as he is bankrupt. This is what they charge their huge fees for.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    Sounds like you need some legal advice! Or you could lose out.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
    http://www.Structuring.com.au
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    Would you rather earn $100 in interest or save $100 in interests on the home loan?

    Both would result in the same savings – assuming the same entity is involved.

    The $100 interest would be taxable. The $100 in interest saved would mean  you have $100 less in deductions which means your taxable income will increase by $100.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
    http://www.Structuring.com.au
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    MV

    Unless you are earning 7%+ in the savings account it would probably work out better for you to put money in the offset as you will be earning whatever the loan interest rate is.

    Also, If you have a spouse on a lower income then it may work out better to lend it to them and they earn interest in a savings account.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
    http://www.Structuring.com.au
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    Lawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au

    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    A trust is not a legal entity. So the names on contracts should be that of the trustee. But the ATO treats a trust as an entity for tax purposes so it could be X as trustee for Y.

    For insurance it doesn't really matter I think, but you should inform the company that the trustee is acting as trustee – full disclosure. Not sure it would make any dfference though.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    I guess that would be the case if you are buying a new house – the architect fees would be built into the construction price. And that is how i claimed one actually as part of the cost of constuction.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    AALLII wrote:
    Can someone please explain the difference between having a company setup to be the trustee of a trust as opposed to having myself as the trustee of a trust which will be used for purpose of subdivision and land development. Thanks :)

    Allii

    Huge difference.

    Companies have the benefit of limited liability so will help protect you and your assets if something goes wrong. Althoug you will still be required to give perosnal guarantees for loans etc.

    Using a company clearly distinguishes the trust assets from your own personal assets.

    It is easier to hand over control with a company to someone else. eg. you become incapacitated and the trustee needs to be changed – if a company you just change directorships with title being the same with an individual you will have to change the title of the land.

    This is also easier for estate planning at death too. Make sure you plan control of the trust being passed on as trust assets are outside your will.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    Aallii

    In some cases yes.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    A vendor would unlikely accept such a condition other than for a few days. Otherwise they could be locked in with you still trying to sell.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    Another advantage of moving in initially is that the property could be CGT free even while you rent it out later and still enable you to claim all the usual expenses.

    You may also be able to take in a boarder during the period it is your main residence to help with expenses.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    I imagine that would be a capital expense and could be deductible against any capital gain/loss

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    Tinsel777 wrote:

    Here is a link to a letter from the former federal Attorney General confirming what I have just said about the non recognition of local councils. http://www.larryhannigan.com/Attorney_General_Referendum_Letter.pdf
     

    This letter says the constitution doesn't recognise local government. This is true. But does it mean all local government regulations are invalid? No. It a local government enacted something that is contrary to the constitution then it would be invald – eg. they are going to set up their own tarrifs on trade between blacktown and penrith. This would be contrary to the constitution and be an invalide law.

    Are rates state local government taxes? probably. Are the unconstitutional? Possibly, but they are still being charged so there must be cases where someone has challenged a council in charging council rates and they must have lost – otherwise the could be no rates.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    Tinsel777 wrote:
    Ok, the information on variable rates:

    For a loan contract or any agreement under Common Law there are eight essential elements.

    There must be –

    (1) an offer;
    (2) acceptance;
    (3) sufficient consideration;
    (4) capacity to contract;
    (5) intention to enter legal relations;
    (6) legality of purpose;
    (7) genuine consent; and
    (8) certainty of terms.

    The problem with varible interest rates is in number 8, that it is NOT 'a certainty of terms'.

    In fact the word 'variable' in the Oxford Dictionary means 'uncertain'. So in actual fact the banks are commiting contract fraud under Common Law. The uncertain terms of varible interest.

    Individuals have used this argument in courts in recent times.

    I hope this helps.

    Thanks for this more concrete informaiton.

    Do you have any caselaw to back this up?

    My take is that 'variable' doesn't mean the contract contains an uncertain term. Variable could possibly mean 'uncertain' in some instances but could also refer to 'change' or 'adjustible'.

    For a contract to be void for uncertainty I think you would need more than this. The language would have to be vague or imprecise.  You couldn't have an agreement to buy a house but subject to a price to be agreed upon.

    One term of the contract could be imprecise but the contract as a whole could still stand. It is also possible that a term could be vague but stiff able to be defined by common practice or some other method. eg you could have an agreement to purchase a house with the price to be determined by the average of two valuations by registered vauers.

    With the loan agreements the interest rate is listed in the agreement, but it is subject to change.

    That website you listed is a bit of a conspircary right wing type. The letters are appauling.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Lawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au

    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
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    The constituion is really legislation. It is just legislation that out ranks other legislation. So the Commonwealth couldn't enact laws that are contrary to the constitution.

    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
    http://www.Structuring.com.au
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    Lawyer, Mortgage Broker and Tax Advisor (Sydney based but advising Aust wide) http://www.Structuring.com.au

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