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  • Profile photo of oeb1oeb1
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    @oeb1
    Join Date: 2011
    Post Count: 3
    March 8, 2011 - 5:11 am

    the money was not used to purchase the property, it was used to lay a floor, i guess my point here is that at the time the money was given it was not given as a loan, no agreements, no paper work, nothing signed by me, no mention of the money for 2 and a half years until now

    Profile photo of oeb1oeb1
    Member
    @oeb1
    Join Date: 2011
    Post Count: 3
    March 8, 2011 - 4:02 am

    this comment was sent to me from a friend that has looked at the original question

    The answer you got deals with the assumption that you are happy to pay the 'loan' back at settlement, but doesn't really address whether the money is considered as a loan to be repaid or not. Can you go back to it again and query that point? I would also add that if she claims an equitable interest in the property age has never contributed to upkeep, rates, maintenance and improvement of the property and doesn't have any written agreement releasing her from her share of those costs as a part owner in the property. – she can't have it both ways?

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