Matt,

I disagree entirely.  If someone is receiving 'financial remuneration' (to use your term)  as a result of recommending or arranging a service for me then I expect to be made aware of this.  How can I be sure they are choosing the best supplier for the job, rather than the supplier which provides them the best 'financial remuneration'.

Once I include all the fees for management of this specific property it works that I am paying in excess of 16% of the rent for the management fees.  Shouldn't this be where the agent gets their 'financial remuneration' for managing the property?

I do have one agent who is using a family member to install items.  The cost was at market value, which I have no problem with this as long as they do a quality job comparative to having a professional do the work.  Unfortunately it is difficult to verify this until it is too late because of course the property is tenanted.

So I assume this is occurring in the industry, and is legal?

Thanks for the advice Linar.  Will do as you suggested.

I have been looking at the wording of the sunset clause and it seems very open ended… is it normal to have the following text which I have highlighted red?   (note, blue text is my shortened version of a section which seems fair and I have not included because it is quite long, but the red text seems as though it gives the vendor full control to excercise the sunset clause as they see fit)

If consutruction of the buildingi s delayed by:
   <fire, weather, precedings, etc, etc, etc, etc,>
   any other cause, matter or thing beyond the control of the vendor;
   and the Archtiect
   so certifies;
   and states in the its certifiecate the period of the delay caused,
The vendor may, by written notice given to the purchaser at any time, extend the sunset clause date by not longer thanthe period of the delay which the archiect has certified.

great idea, definately agree. Shame there is no onthehouse.com.au equivalent for wa.

I guess that's part of my question.  If I put in an offer via fax or email, is that binding at that point in time, or is it only binding at the time of having the contract signed by BOTH parties?  If it's not binding and both offers are accepted, it would then be my choice which offer to pursue.  (or is this unethical?)

Alternatively, I submit an offer on the preferred property and then await a response before submitting another offer.  How do I limit the time the vendor has to respond (i.e. I don't want to be waiting weeks for the vendor to make up their mind).

Cheers.