Can anyone explain the answers I received when I enquired about a bailiffs auction in my area. The ad read as follows. Bailiff land auction (day/date/time) on site unless PSSO MC/CIV/MID/MINOR/2504/2010 is previously satisfied the **** bailiff will sell by public auction (physical location) lot/plan/vol/folio. Weatherboard and iron dwelling on (***sqm). Sale subject to rates taxes etc.Terms $****** at the fall of the hammer balance within 28 days. phone number/ref*****. This is exactly how it read. When I rang I asked if I could inspect the house to which the answer was no. I do believe this is normal in this type of sale but the respondent said I couldn't inspect the house because they were only auctioning the land and after buying the land I could purchase the house by payiing out the mortgage and rates and taxes etc. which was $$$$$ many many thousands. I then said well who holds the mortgage over the property as I would contact them and see if I could inspect the dwelling. I was once again was told no. This house hasn't been occupied for over 2 years and looks in poor condition from the street. My question is can it be possible that land can be sold by auction but not the dwelling on it and how can they demand that the mortgage as is be paid out. I am fully aware that rates/taxes etc encumbering the property would be due but I would have thought that when you buy a property at a bailiffs auction you would purchase it complete with fixed encumberances but the mortgage or part there of is taken care of at the fall of the hammer cheers
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