say if i have an IP for 20 years then move into it for say 12 months, then sell it.. do i pay any GCT at all because it was my PPOR or would i still have to pay CGT on the estimated price of 12 months ago..
would it work simular to one of these ways or a totally different way??
The CGT will be pro-rated for the time it was an investment property so 19 out of 20 (years). It will be based the Fair Market Value at the time it ceased to be an investment property.
Like what you said.
Josie[]
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